Read the excerpt from Martin Luther King Jr's "Have a Dream" speech.

Five score years ago a great American, in whose symbolic
shadow we stand today, signed the Emancipation Proclamation
This momentous decree came as a great beacon light of hope to
millions of Negro slaves who had been seared in the flames of
withering injustice. It came as a joyous daybreak to end the long
night of their captivity.
But one hundred years later, the Negro still is not free.

Why does Dr King's allude to the Emancipation Proclamation in
his speech?

A. The allusion demonstrates Dr. King's belief that
equality was achieved with the Emancipation
Proclamation

B. The allusion indicates to the audience that enslaving
people was always illegal in the United States

C. But one hundred years later, the Negro still
not free. Why dose Dr. King allude to the emancipation proclamation in his speech

D. The allusion reminds the audience that 100 years
O have passed since the Emancipation Proclamation
yet inequality still exists

E. The allusion reflects Dr. King's importance since it
O refers to another important figure in American history
President Lincoln

hello.  

answer ir: bush stirs up emotions of brotherhood and freedom to inspire americans.

however, you could u provide the whole options so as to verify : )

hope it .

the play romeo and juliet was one of the most famous love tragedies ever written. this love story unfortunately had a fatal ending. many people argue over why the lovers had died, was it over free will or fate?  

the death of romeo and juliet was partially because of free will. the fact that romeo and juliet got married knowing that there was a bitter feud between their families, the montague and capulet’s. this feud brought on many problems, such as the murder of tybalt by romeo. juliet knew that this might be a problem for her and romeo. juliet had said: “what’s in a name”? which explains her ill fate of being a capulet and romeo being a montague. when romeo tells his servant “ ay, mine own…show more content…

i believe they had died over the love they had for each other, strong enough that their lives could end so suddenly if something horrible had come between them, and that was exactly how it happened. this tragedy occurred within five days of the two meeting, they experienced love at first sight, got married and quickly were dead. free will became a part of this when juliet decided to take friar laurence’s advise in inhaling a potion that will make people assume she is died but will awake in 42 hours prier to when she took it. when romeo had heard the news that juliet was dead, he assumed it was true, and responded with the line; “well juliet, i will lay with thee tonight”. to me this line indicated how he feels for juliet by dying in her will. the fact that free will didn’t take control of the story; it left fate to be the murder of the lovers. fate first kicked in when their eyes met at the capulet party. when romeo and juliet spoke, their words had powerful contentment; they had such a strong feeling for one another that they could lay in each other’s arms forever. their happiness didn’t last long; there were many reasons for this, for example; the marriage lord capulet arranged between paris and juliet. i believe that the plot of the play thus far leads the audience to believe that the deaths were a result of fate. the last act will determine once and for all if it is fate or free will. romeo again challenges fate.

explanation:

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