English, 02.07.2021 07:00 hbantzstudent
In these paragraphs, Kant says that it is possible for societies to exist where no one uses his talents or where no one has compassion for another person, but that no person could “possibly will that this should be a universal law of nature or be implanted in us as such by a natural instinct.” Why does he feel he can make assumptions about this? Do you think he’s accurate in doing so?
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In these paragraphs, Kant says that it is possible for societies to exist where no one uses his tale...
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