She Walks in Beauty by George Gordon Byron La Belle Dame sans Merci by John Keats How do these two poems differ in what they emphasize? A) Both of these poems depict men in love with women who are not only beautiful, but also kind, giving, and generous. B) The poem "She Walks in Beauty" is written in beautiful, rhyming lines while "La Belle Dame sans Merci" is written in unrhymed free verse. C) While the woman praised in "She Walks in Beauty" is both lovely and has a innocent heart, the woman in "La Belle Dame" is cruel and deadly to men. D) The speaker of "She Walks in Beauty" sees the woman as beautiful but dangerous, but the speaker of "La Belle Dame" sees only the positive side of the woman he loves.

The two poems differ in the what they emphasize because:

C) While the woman praised in "She Walks in Beauty" is both lovely and has an innocent heart,, the woman in "La Belle Dame" is cruel and deadly to men.

Explanation:

For several lines of "La Belle Dame Sans Merci," we think the speaker is describing the perfect, idealized woman. She is, in fact, a fairy whose beauty captivates the men who see her. However, as we read on, we find out that she captivates them in a most literal way. The woman makes those men her prisoners. Therefore, she is cruel and deadly.

In that sense, the poem differs from "She Walks in Beauty," since this poem describes in fact an idealized woman. She is perfectly beautiful, peaceful, innocent, and sweet. With that in mind, we can choose letter C as the best option.

the play romeo and juliet was one of the most famous love tragedies ever written. this love story unfortunately had a fatal ending. many people argue over why the lovers had died, was it over free will or fate?  

the death of romeo and juliet was partially because of free will. the fact that romeo and juliet got married knowing that there was a bitter feud between their families, the montague and capulet’s. this feud brought on many problems, such as the murder of tybalt by romeo. juliet knew that this might be a problem for her and romeo. juliet had said: “what’s in a name”? which explains her ill fate of being a capulet and romeo being a montague. when romeo tells his servant “ ay, mine own…show more content…

i believe they had died over the love they had for each other, strong enough that their lives could end so suddenly if something horrible had come between them, and that was exactly how it happened. this tragedy occurred within five days of the two meeting, they experienced love at first sight, got married and quickly were dead. free will became a part of this when juliet decided to take friar laurence’s advise in inhaling a potion that will make people assume she is died but will awake in 42 hours prier to when she took it. when romeo had heard the news that juliet was dead, he assumed it was true, and responded with the line; “well juliet, i will lay with thee tonight”. to me this line indicated how he feels for juliet by dying in her will. the fact that free will didn’t take control of the story; it left fate to be the murder of the lovers. fate first kicked in when their eyes met at the capulet party. when romeo and juliet spoke, their words had powerful contentment; they had such a strong feeling for one another that they could lay in each other’s arms forever. their happiness didn’t last long; there were many reasons for this, for example; the marriage lord capulet arranged between paris and juliet. i believe that the plot of the play thus far leads the audience to believe that the deaths were a result of fate. the last act will determine once and for all if it is fate or free will. romeo again challenges fate.

explanation: