Which best explains why Baldwin's uses the word "immutable"? O to de-emphasize the serious nature of the law he describes
O to emphasize the inescapable nature of the law he describes
to contrast the law he describes with other laws of human nature
to compare the law he describes with laws based on morality

glamis thou art, and cawdor; and shalt be what thou art promis'd; yet do i fear thy nature; it is too full o' the milk of human kindness to catch the nearest way: thou wouldst be great; art not without ambition; but without the illness should attend it. what thou wouldst highly, that wouldst thou holily; wouldst not play false, and yet wouldst wrongly win: thou'dst have, great glamis, that which cries, "thus thou must do, if thou have it: and that which rather thou dost fear to do than wishest should be undone." hie thee hither, that i may pour my spirits in thine ear; and chastise with the valor of my tongue all that impedes thee from the golden round, which fate and metaphysical aid doth seem to have thee crown'd withal.  

he lacks ambition.  

he is hesitant.  

he lacks courage.  

he has moral scruples.

omg omg omg that looks so so

explanation:

so cut i love it x3

the correct answer can either be a or b because it could be both but you should probally choose b