I will give brainliest
Refer to Explorations in Literature for a complete version of this interview.

In "Interview with Simon Ortiz," Ortiz speaks about Native American people before and after the European colonization of North America:

Native American people, before the European colonization of this country, were multilingual. They spoke not only their mother tongue but that of sister nations and cultures next to them. In the same sense Native American people speaking French, English, and Spanish after European colonization simply were another addition of other languages. Of course, that colonialism was in process makes a difference, obviously. Essentially, writing today is, in a sense, an acquisition of a language, extending the multilanguage ability-facility of Native American people.

How does Ortiz's word choice in this passage affect the text?

It formally conveys his view that Native Americans were always particularly adept at learning new languages.

It subtly indicates his belief that the ability of Native Americans to learn new languages was hindered by European colonization.

It casually suggests his opinion that the European colonization of North America amounted to an illegal occupation.

It explicitly proves his assertion that Native American people always employed both writing and the oral tradition.