Why might there be a difference between the population and the sample from the framingham study? assuming that all these statements are true - what are possible explanations for the higher diabetes prevalence in the framingham population? assign the name framingham_diabetes_explanations to an array of the following explanations that are possible and consistent with the trends we observe in the data and our hypothesis test results. diabetes was under-diagnosed in the population (i. e., there were a lot of people in the population who had diabetes but weren't diagnosed). by contrast, the framingham participants were less likely to go undiagnosed because they had regular medical examinations as part of the study.