In chemistry, one often uses a unit of charge known as the Faraday, F, which has the magnitude of the charge of 1 mole of electrons. How many faradays of charge does that correspond to

1 Faraday

Explanation:

This question seeks to test proper understanding of Faraday's second law of electrolysis which states when the same quantity electricity passes through a solution of different electrolytes, the mass of the substance deposited is directly proportional to there chemical equivalence.

This law hints at the charges of ions being the chemical equivalence and also been represented as the unit for the quantity of electricity in faraday, F. Hence, a metal with the charge of 1+ can be displaced by 1F (which is equal to 96, 500 coloumbs). This charge also represents one molecule of electron, thus 1 faraday corresponds to one mole of electrons.

NOTE: It should be noted that a metal with the charge of 2+ can be displaced by 2F and so on.

when the volume of gas is   changed from   717.73 ml   to 852 ml   the temperature will   change   from 315   c to 452   c

    calculation

this is calculated using the charles law formula

that is,   v1/t1 = v2/t2

          v1=?

        t1 = 315 c   into   kelvin = 315 +273 = 588 k

        v2 = 852   ml

        t2 = 425c + 273 =698 k

make v1   the subject of the formula ( by   multiplying both side by t1)

  v1=( v2 xt1) / t2

v1= (852 ml   x 588 k)/ 698 k= 717.73 ml