In chemistry, one often uses a unit of charge known as the Faraday, F, which has the magnitude of the charge of 1 mole of electrons. How many faradays of charge does that correspond to

1 Faraday

Explanation:

This question seeks to test proper understanding of Faraday's second law of electrolysis which states when the same quantity electricity passes through a solution of different electrolytes, the mass of the substance deposited is directly proportional to there chemical equivalence.

This law hints at the charges of ions being the chemical equivalence and also been represented as the unit for the quantity of electricity in faraday, F. Hence, a metal with the charge of 1+ can be displaced by 1F (which is equal to 96, 500 coloumbs). This charge also represents one molecule of electron, thus 1 faraday corresponds to one mole of electrons.

NOTE: It should be noted that a metal with the charge of 2+ can be displaced by 2F and so on.

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the ideal gas law equation is as follows

pv = nrt

where p - pressure

v - volume

n - number of moles

r - universal gas constant

t - temperature

so if the pressure, volume and temperature are already known

we are left with n and r

since r is the universal gas constant that has a known fixed value then r too is known

so we are left with 'n'

once we know temperature volume and pressure

we can find the number of moles of gas present using the ideal gas law equation

this is not my own answer, this is an answer for the same question by the user blahblahmali. i do not claim ownership of this account.