In this case, the principal (the home buyer, Jones) had signed two exclusive agency agreements with two separate realtors (agents). The court decision required that Jones pay damages equal to the agreed-upon commission to the second realtor (Woolston). If Jones had not yet paid the commission to the first realtor (Burt), could the first realtor have also obtained damages equal to the agreed-upon commission?a. Perhaps, if a court felt that the first realtor (Burt) had extended considerable time, effort, and expense in helping the home buyer. b. Probably not, because no court in the land would force a home buyer to pay a double commission. c. Probably not, because the first agent to sue is the one who gets paid.

A) Perhaps, if a court felt that the first realtor (Burt) had extended considerable time, effort, and expense in helping the home buyer.

Explanation:

Since Jones signed an exclusive agency agreement with Burt also, then he is liable to both realtors, not only Woolston. If Jones had only paid Woolston, then Burt could have sued Jones for damages equivalent to the sales commission just like Woolston did. Whenever you sign a contract, you are responsible for performing your part.

The only argument that Jones could use in his favor would be that Burt didn't do his job, so both would have breached the contract.

x=3

step-by-step explanation:

this is really simple i saw that there was only one term (5x) and thought if that was 15 what would i have to multiply everything else to get it there? well if 5x became 15 then x would have to be 3 so plug the 3 in the x for the other equations and you get 15 for the other ones. so there you go. : )