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Business, 19.03.2020 03:05 shaunalab

An article in the Economist notes, "For 60 years, from 1770 to 1830 , growth in British wages, adjusted for inflation, was imperceptible because productivity growth was restricted to a few industries." Not until the late nineteenth, when productivity "gains had spread across the whole economy," did a sustained increase in real wages begin. Why would you expect there to be a close relationship between productivity gains and increases in real wages?

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An article in the Economist notes, "For 60 years, from 1770 to 1830 , growth in British wages, adjus...

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