Achange in the dollar value of the british pound from $1.60 to $1.50 represents a. an increase in the pound price of british goods. b. an appreciation of the dollar relative to the pound. c. an increase in the dollar price of british goods. d. an appreciation of the pound relative to the dollar.

Option (B) is correct.

Explanation:

1 pound = $1.60

1 pound = $1.50

So, there is a depreciation in the value of pound relative to the dollar and appreciation in the value of dollar relative to the pound.

Now, suppose a resident of united states purchase some quantity of goods(say, 20 shirts) from the seller in United kingdom.

Price of each shirt = 2 pounds

Hence,

Before the change in exchange rate, then the buyer have to pay in dollars:

= 20 × (2 × $1.60)

= 20 × 3.2

= $64

After the change in exchange rate, then the buyer have to pay in dollars:

= 20 × (2 × $1.50)

= 20 × 3

= $60

Hence, the amount paid by the resident of united states reduced because of the fall in exchange rate. Now, they have to pay less for the same amount of commodities. This shows that there is an appreciation in the currency of US relative to UK.

if i need to borrow money for anything, it would be for something like a house or an apartment but, that depend on the situation.

is this good enough?