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Biology, 04.11.2021 09:10 KHaire4770

What is the term for the following scenario? A G2P1 at 38 weeks has been in the OB Antepartum testing area for the last 2 hours. Her Nonstress test was reactive and she has no contractions or abnormal discharge or fluid of any kind vaginally. Her blood glucose Accu-Check was within normal limits after lunch. Her fetus is active, and she has no complaints of any discomfort. She has a diagnosis regarding her glucose intolerance in pregnancy and is following an ADA diet and exercising regularly. She is currently having irregular Braxton-Hicks contractions and her cervix is <1 cm and 50% effaced.

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What is the term for the following scenario? A G2P1 at 38 weeks has been in the OB Antepartum test...

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