In cross I, we are treating F1 x dp se (cross [b] on page 34) and dp se x F1 (cross [c] on page 34) as equivalent crosses, but in Drosophila that is generally a very bad idea! Why is it a bad idea in general and why will we be able to get away with it in cross I? (3 points) 2. Suppose that se and dp are over 50 m. u. apart on the same autosome (this is not actually the case). What phenotypic ratios would you expect to see in the F2 generation of our cross I? (4 points) What extremely important fact about Drosophila males do you have to keep in mind to successfully work out the answer to this problem? (1 point)