Advanced Placement (AP), 30.07.2019 22:00 Kafapa

What are the connections between larger economic forces and the economic stratification and racism that results?

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Equality is incompatible with racism. Democracy, that's humans having a say in their government to the diploma they are laid low with selections, is incompatible with racism. White employees will never have the bargaining strength they want to have financial security if they choose to just accept the divisions that ensue. that is obvious even via a quick glance at the united states and Canada. Canada has customary fitness care and plenty more modern taxation and a feasible 1/3 birthday party-- these are all beneath assault and being dismantled, however, they had been won in the first region because of operating humans' combating and struggling to win them. the USA had its very own labor struggles in which a lot became won-- however labor inside the US has usually been divided between fighting owners and managers on the one hand, and bashing Black individuals and immigrants on the alternative. employees in Canada, truly the same as America in maximum ways, however, missing the history of slavery, should recognition more on their monetary pastimes (attacking immigrant groups every so often, it should not be forgotten) and win more. but all this discussion of racism's necessary position in preserving financial inequality and lack of confidence within the US obscures the tragedy of a racist financial system-- an economic system that wastes human capacity and condemns large numbers to misery and poverty out of spite and cruelty.

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the answer to the question is punishment. or more specifically, positive punishment.

positive punishment occurs when a behavior is given a negative consequence for the individual doing the behavior.

sara no longer wants to ask questions (the behavior) because she is ridiculed by mr. smith (the punishment).

reinforcement is inaccurate because reinforcement always gives positive consequences for the individual doing the behavior, be it by introducing a pleasant consequence or removing an unpleasant one.

Answer from: Quest

The answer is (d) 7/2======we have $f(x) = \begin{cases} x & \text{ for } x \le 0 \\ x + 1 & \text{ for } x \ \textgreater \ 0 \end{cases}$ we also have an integral $\displaystyle\int_{-2}^1 x\, f(x)\; dx$ notice how function f splits up at x = 0. there's a left piece and a right pieceso we'll need to do the same thing with our integral: split it at x = 0we use a property of integrals that allows us to split up and sum: $\displaystyle\int_{-2}^1 x\, f(x)\; dx = \displaystyle\int_{-2}^0 x\, f(x)\; dx + \displaystyle\int_{0}^1 x\, f(x)\; dx$ notice that for the piecewise function f, the function has the equationf(x) = x when x ≤ 0. so for the integral $\int_{-2}^0 x\, f(x)\; dx$ , f(x) = x so it changes into $\begin{aligned} \int_{-2}^0 x\, f(x)\; dx & = \int_{-2}^0 x \cdot x\; dx \\ & = \int_{-2}^0 x^2\; dx \\ & = \left[\frac{x^3}{3}\right]_{-2}^0 & & \text{\footnotesize antidifferentiate} \\ & = 0 - \frac{(-2)^3}{3} \\ & = \frac{8}{3} \end{aligned}$ for the piecewise function f, the function has the equationf(x) = x+1 when x > 0. for the integral $\int_{0}^1 x\, f(x)\; dx$ , we have $\begin{aligned} \int_{0}^1 x\, f(x)\; dx & = \int_{0}^1 x(x+1)\; dx \\ & = \int_{0}^1 (x^2+x)\; dx \\ & = \left[ \frac{x^3}{3} + \frac{x^2}{2}\right]_0^1 \\ & = \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{2} - 0 = \frac{5}{6} \end{aligned}$ therefore, back to our splitted integral: $\begin{aligned} \displaystyle\int_{-2}^1 x\, f(x)\; dx & = \displaystyle\int_{-2}^0 x\, f(x)\; dx + \displaystyle\int_{0}^1 x\, f(x)\; dx \\ & = \frac{8}{3} + \frac{5}{6} \\ & = \frac{7}{2} \end{aligned}$
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